Free BCSE practice questions with answers and explanations

Answer: A. Urethral obstruction is very common in goats, especially young castrated males. Some owners may think that the goat is constipated especially when complete obstruction is present. Metabolic consequences of obstruction develop quickly, similarly to that seen in cats, with azotemia and hyperkalemia. Fluid therapy with saline is given in addition to removal of the obstruction. Amputation of the urethral process is the first step, as this is acommon site. Surgical intervention is needed when this does not work.

Answer: E. Leakage of air around the endotracheal tube at 20 cm H20 helps to ensure that the cuff is not over-inflated or under-inflated during anesthesia. Remember that the muscles will continue to relax as a deeper plane of anesthesia is achieved, and the cuff should be retested at that time. lf the cuff is over-inflated, pressure necrosis or tearing of the trachea can occur. If the cuff is under-inflated, there is increased exposure of the surgical team to waste anesthetic gasses, and it may be more difficult to keep the patient anesthetized. The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) provides this info on Equipment Preparation prior to an anesthetic event.

Answer: B. To determine this answer, you need to know that BID means twice a day, and that there are 30 cubic centimeters[ccs] in an ounce[oz]. First, determine how many cc's are needed, then divide that amount by 30 to convert to ozs: To determine daily dose: S5cc x 2 = 10 cc a day. Then the total ccs needed: 10 ccs x 30 days = 300 ccs total. Then convert from ccs to ozs 300ccs 30/1 cc/oz = 10 oz. ccs x dosage = daily dose

Answer: E. Brucella blood agar plates are a primary isolation medium that provide a rich medium for anaerobic organisms. A special incubator is needed if doing in-house anaerobic sample culturing, or placing the collected sample into an anaerobic swab collection system when sending to an outside lab The MacConkey’s agar plate is a primary isolation medium for selection of gram- negative bacteria. Selenite broth enriches samples to help detect Salmonella spp. Triple sugar iron agar slant shows how an organism to utilizes glucose, sucrose, and lactose; and whether it produces hydrogen sulfide. Citrate test media help identify Enterobacteriaceae based on its ability to use citrate as asole carbon source.

Answer: A. The mandibular salivary gland is easily palpable subcutaneously in the neck. It is larger and softer than the nearby rostrolateral mandibular lymph nodes. The sublingual and parotid salivary glands are diffusely located. The caudal (monostomatic) portion of the sublingual salivary gland abuts the mandibular salivary gland. The zygomatic gland is too deep to be easily palpated. There are no maxillary or superficial cervical salivary glands.

Answer: D. Fluoroscopy is commonly used to diagnose tracheal collapse. Fluoroscopy provides a continuous radiographic image, allowing visualization of the changing tracheal diameter during inspiration and expiration. Fluoroscopy is an excellent tool for assessing dynamic processes and moving structures. Other indications for fluoroscopy include assessment of esophageal motility, myelography, cardiovascular studies, fracture reductions and catheter/stent placement. Because a continuous x-ray beam is used, radiation exposure is a concern. Radiographers must follow safety procedures and wear a dosimeter during procedures.

Answer: E. New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks. It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism. In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate. Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit. Ammonia is continuously produced by the aquatic amphibians and any unfinished food. Excess nitrogen metabolites is acommon cause of death in aquatic amphibians. Old tank syndrome occurs after months of tank mismanagement leading to very high ammonia and very low pH when the buffering system becomes overwhelmed.

Answer: D. "Red nose" is the lay terminology for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1). BHV-1 is associated with a number of syndromes: rhinotracheitis, vulvovaginitis, conjunctivitis, abortion, enteritis, and encephalomyelitis. Prevention with immunization is usually effective. Moraxella bovis is a bacteria that causes infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, which can also occur in sheep and goats.

Answer: B. This is a tricky question to help you remember that two diseases FORMERLY classified as Ehrlichia have now been RE-classified. The causative organism of equine granulocytic anaplasmosis (a.k.a. anaplasmosis; formerly equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now called ANAPLASMA phagocytophilum due to DNA sequencing studies. Do not confuse equine anaplasmosis, a necrotizing vasculitis, with BOVINE anaplasmosis, which primarily causes an anemia with icterus and fever. Another name change occurred with the causative organism of Potomac horse fever (PHF), from Ehrlichia risticii to NEOrickettsia risticii. PHF presents as a febrile colitis/diarrhea, with laminitis 3-5 d after diarrhea in horses of all ages: A big rule out is salmonella (think septicemia/fever + diarrhea).

Answer: A. The milk urea nitrogen is a measure of nitrogen metabolism (protein) in the dairy cow. The normal value is about 14 mg/dl. Samples from at least 8 cows are measured and the values are averaged to reflect a mean. Significant increases mean that an excessive amount of rumen utilizable protein is being fed. Substantial excess of protein (more than 19%) in the ration may prolong days open and services per conception after parturition. High milk urea nitrogen levels could also rise if the amount of fermentable carbohydrate becomes sub-optimal, because energy is required to deaminate the normal amount of amino acids in the liver and excrete the products in the kidney. Thus if the diet has insufficient carbohydrate, or excess fiber,the milk urea nitrogen could also increase. Do not confuse excess protein in a ration with Non-protein nitrogen poisoning, an acute convulsive, rapidly fatal toxicity typically due to excess urea or other NON-protein nitrogen sources.

Answer: A. Permethrin toxicity in cats is relatively common occurrence after being treated with a concentrated permethrin-containing flea product labeled for dogs. Rx with METHOCARBIMOL (Robaxin ) a centrally- acting muscle relaxant and if needed, with seizure control (ie: diazepam, pentobarbitol, or inhalant anesthesia). UNLIKE OPP/carbamate toxicities, DO NOT Rx permethrin toxicity with Atropine. Big DDXs are Organophosphate (OPP) toxicity, and Carbamate toxicity which look similar. With OPP and Carbamates, may see MIOSIS, UNlike permethrin/pyrethroid toxicity. D-Limonene is a citrus-based anti-flea

Answer: A. Leukemia is a malignant neoplastic disease of the WBC or RBC precursors with neoplastic cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood. Leukemias are further distinguished according to their behaviour (acute or chronic) and their precursor cell (lymphoid or myeloid), so you will see names like Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) or Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). Lymphoma is a tumor of lymphocytes that originates mainly solid lymphoid tissues including the bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen. In addition, common extranodal sites include the skin, eye, CNS, testis, and bone. Lymphomas are further distinguished according to their location (multicentric, cutaneous, CNS, GI). In cats, FeLV infection is an important risk factor for both leukemia and lymphoma. FIV infected cats have a higher than expected incidence of FeLV-negative lymphomas.

Answer: A. Use amprolium to treat coccidiosis, most commonly in cattle, pigs, chickens. Sometimes used (off label) as a preventive and treatment in dog kennel situations. Typically asymptomatic in cats and dogs, but young, stressed animals and the immunocompromised may show clinical signs. Because amprolium mimics thiamine's structure, it competitively inhibits thiamine utilization of the parasite. Because of this, prolonged dosages can cause thiamine deficiency. Usually do not treat more than 14 days.

Answer: B. Subcutaneous (SC or SQ) injections may be administered anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented. A common site is over the shoulders. Medications administered subcutaneously are absorbed more slowly as compared to those given IV or IM. Commonly administered SC therapeutic agents include vaccines, local anesthetics, and small volumes of other medications. Subcutaneous is also a preferred route for fluid administration by owners at home in small animals, in which a relatively small volume administered can be helpful (for example, in cats with chronic renal failure).

Answer: B. A perineal urethrostomy is a surgery to make an opening in the urethra at the perineum (skin between anus and genitals) of a blocked male cat with urolithiasis (bladder stones and crystals) so that he can urinate.

Answer: C. If you hear "nasal discharge" in younger horses and then abortion storms four to five months later in late pregnant mares, think equine herpesvirus-1 (EHV-1, equine rhinopneumonitis). Vaccination of pregnant mares at five, seven, and nine months gestation helps prevent abortion.

Answer: B. Both molybdenum poisoning and associated copper deficiency cause a gastroenteritis. Look for so-called "peat scours" or "teart" (severe scours with gas bubbles). Additional possible clinical signs include unthriftiness, emaciation, coat depigmentation, pica, a microcytic hypochromic anemia, joint pain/lameness, and bone fractures (osteoporosis).